<p>zo'e in Lojban is always implied when any place of a selbri isn't filled. You can use zo'e when you want to explicitly note that there is a &quot;something&quot;, but it's not necessary.</p>
<p>So, ta se klama is grammatically correct, and would mean &quot;That is gone to&quot;, as you said, or equivalently &quot;Someone/something has gone there&quot;.</p>

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2024-03-20T17:52:16.297Z
2024-03-20T17:52:16.297Z
Cecilia
<p>Is &quot;ta se klama&quot; grammatically correct?
Could I say &quot;That is gone to&quot; in lojban, without adding a zo'e to my sentence?
Or would it have to be &quot;That is gone to by something&quot;?</p>

<grammar><lojban>
Is this lojban sentence grammatically correct?
# Is this lojban sentence grammatically correct?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2024-03-20)

Is "ta se klama" grammatically correct?
Could I say "That is gone to" in lojban, without adding a zo'e to my sentence?
Or would it have to be "That is gone to by something"?

**Tags:** grammar, lojban

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## 1 answers

### Answer by username_1 on 2024-03-20. Score: 2 | Accepted answer

zo'e in Lojban is always implied when any place of a selbri isn't filled. You can use zo'e when you want to explicitly note that there is a "something", but it's not necessary.

So, ta se klama is grammatically correct, and would mean "That is gone to", as you said, or equivalently "Someone/something has gone there".


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